1-year follow-up, Patient X's tooth has normal…
Dental trauma questions test protocol-level decisions — splint type, duration, follow-up timing — where one wrong detail means a wrong answer. This high-difficulty vignette tests your ability to work through clinical details and arrive at the correct management.
Two 14-year-olds present simultaneously. Patient X: closed apex incisor replanted by parent at scene 10 minutes post-injury (Group 1). Patient Y: closed apex incisor stored in saliva for 50 minutes after 8 minutes dry (Group 2). Both teeth are well-positioned. The dentist must plan both cases. At 1-year follow-up, Patient X's tooth has normal mobility, no symptoms, and normal lamina dura. Patient Y's tooth produces a metallic percussion sound, shows no mobility, and the PDL space is absent radiographically. Which statement correctly interprets BOTH outcomes?
- A. Both outcomes are favourable — metallic sound simply indicates the tooth has healed firmly into the bone
- B. X has a favourable outcome; Y has ankylosis-related replacement resorption which will eventually result in tooth loss
- C. X has a favourable outcome; Y has infection-related inflammatory resorption requiring immediate root canal retreatment
- D. Both outcomes are unfavourable — X should show pulp canal obliteration by now, and Y's ankylosis means the splint was too rigid
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Integration: (1) Apply Sec 11.2.1 favourable criteria to X — all met. (2) Apply Sec 11.3.1 unfavourable criteria to Y — metallic sound + absent PDL + no mobility = ankylosis. (3) Distinguish replacement from inflammatory resorption. (4) Know that favourable closed apex does NOT show obliteration (that's open apex). SOURCE — Fouad AF et al. IADT Avulsion Guidelines, Dent Traumatol 2020;36:331-342, Sections 11.2.1, 11.3.1, 11
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